Hello,
First - I apologise for writing in English. I live abroad (UK) and I don't have the keyboard (nor the typing skills) to write in Hebrew. I am an avid reader of the Blog and while much of the specific investment discussion is rightly around Israeli capital market - the principals are universals.
Now to the subject matter.
Investment in precious metal(s). In building my portfolio I decided that I will apply the PRINCIPLES (as I understand them) to this section of my investment. The PRINCIPLES are:
1. You can't tell and should try to guess the future direction of any investment.
2. You should balance your portfolio so that you will gain maximum or lose minimum in ANY eventuality.
So, in that spirit, I decided to invest not just in GOLD, but in ALL four precious metals (gold, silver, platinum and palladium) and to do so in EQUAL measures.
To test this I have run a simulation that checks the behaviour of a GOLD ONLY investment for the last 25 years vs a portfolio that has the four metals AND is being rebalanced when the share of any investment deviates by 5% or more from the original 25% allocation. the RESULTS: Over that period a GOLD ONLY investment would have returned 330% while a BALANCED METALS would have returned 430%. This is not surprising. After all, the REBALANCING act means that you are selling when an investment has gone up - and buy the one that is now low. Doing it repeatedly increases the value of the portfolio over time.
I don't know if there are ETFs in Israel that deal with all precious metals. Even in the UK it is relatively new phenomenon.
I also have a question, should anyone read my post to this point
and want to help me.
Dorin advocates the idea of investment in shares that is weighted geographically PER the percentage of the region in the world wealth. Thus, for example, investment in the US would be of 50% of the portfolio. I was wondering if that does not violate the rules above. After all, if the US economy just sneezes, the whole portfolio catches cold! would it not be wiser to allocate EQUAL share of investment between, say, US, UK, EUROPE, JAPAN, FAR EAST and DEVELOPING COUNTRIES?
Please convince me of the folly of my idea!
Thanks
Mordechai
First - I apologise for writing in English. I live abroad (UK) and I don't have the keyboard (nor the typing skills) to write in Hebrew. I am an avid reader of the Blog and while much of the specific investment discussion is rightly around Israeli capital market - the principals are universals.
Now to the subject matter.
Investment in precious metal(s). In building my portfolio I decided that I will apply the PRINCIPLES (as I understand them) to this section of my investment. The PRINCIPLES are:
1. You can't tell and should try to guess the future direction of any investment.
2. You should balance your portfolio so that you will gain maximum or lose minimum in ANY eventuality.
So, in that spirit, I decided to invest not just in GOLD, but in ALL four precious metals (gold, silver, platinum and palladium) and to do so in EQUAL measures.
To test this I have run a simulation that checks the behaviour of a GOLD ONLY investment for the last 25 years vs a portfolio that has the four metals AND is being rebalanced when the share of any investment deviates by 5% or more from the original 25% allocation. the RESULTS: Over that period a GOLD ONLY investment would have returned 330% while a BALANCED METALS would have returned 430%. This is not surprising. After all, the REBALANCING act means that you are selling when an investment has gone up - and buy the one that is now low. Doing it repeatedly increases the value of the portfolio over time.
I don't know if there are ETFs in Israel that deal with all precious metals. Even in the UK it is relatively new phenomenon.
I also have a question, should anyone read my post to this point
Dorin advocates the idea of investment in shares that is weighted geographically PER the percentage of the region in the world wealth. Thus, for example, investment in the US would be of 50% of the portfolio. I was wondering if that does not violate the rules above. After all, if the US economy just sneezes, the whole portfolio catches cold! would it not be wiser to allocate EQUAL share of investment between, say, US, UK, EUROPE, JAPAN, FAR EAST and DEVELOPING COUNTRIES?
Please convince me of the folly of my idea!
Thanks
Mordechai